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Offline Ryuko

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« on: March 17, 2005, 11:38:28 AM »
All of the founding experts of Linguistics wrote impossibly difficult to decipher essays about their theories, most especially Charles S. Peirce. I have to write an essay with examples for all of their theories and no matter how many times I read paragraphs like this:

"A Symbol is a sign which refers to the Object that it denotes by virtue of law, usually an association of general ideas, which operates to cause the Symbol to be interpreted as referring to that Object. It is thus itself a general type or law, that is, is a Legisign. As such it acts through a Replica. Not only is it general itself, but the Object to which it refers is of a general nature...."

WHAT?!?!?! WRITE ENGLISH, YOU MATHEMATICION SILLY MAN!!
« Last Edit: March 17, 2005, 02:11:56 PM by Ryuko »
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Offline Jonathon

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« Reply #1 on: March 17, 2005, 11:47:24 AM »
Ah, Peircian semiotics. Good stuff. I'll give you an explanation when I get back from class.
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Offline Ryuko

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« Reply #2 on: March 17, 2005, 11:59:05 AM »
You will be my hero.
"Well, I'm certainly not going to get rich with customers like you. I thought I taught you to drink faster than that. Well, at least you're steady. Oh, come on now. Drink up. There's plenty more where that came from. "

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Offline Jonathon

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« Reply #3 on: March 17, 2005, 02:08:13 PM »
The basic idea here is that a word (symbol or sign) represents an object, and it is according to "law" that the symbol and object are connected. For example, it is by general agreement that we use the word "tree" to represent a large plant with a woody trunk and branches or a tree diagram or whatever.


Umm . . . I actually don't remember learning terms like "legisign" and all that in my semantics class. But my teacher and his TA are both devoted Peircians, and I'm pretty good friends with the TA. I'll ask her and see if I can get a better explanation.
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Offline Ryuko

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« Reply #4 on: March 17, 2005, 02:14:13 PM »
That makes a bit more sense. So that means that they are connected by actual laws or by the laws of languages?

I'm just screwed. I have to provide examples of particular concepts by Sapir, Saussure, Peirce, Austin, and Malinowski. I've already written most of my Peirce paragraph, but I'm pretty sure it's all wrong.  

This stupid thing is due in two hours. :/ I think the teacher will be nice about it being late, though, considering the fact that I'm sick. :( I hate being sick.
"Well, I'm certainly not going to get rich with customers like you. I thought I taught you to drink faster than that. Well, at least you're steady. Oh, come on now. Drink up. There's plenty more where that came from. "

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Offline Jonathon

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« Reply #5 on: March 17, 2005, 02:29:23 PM »
I believe that when Peirce uses the word "law," he's usually referring to generally accepted conventions. That is, we as speakers decide what a word means and doesn't mean. This is the "law" that governs the relation of the symbol to the object.


Sorry I wasn't able to be more helpful. I've never even heard of those other guys (though Sapir rings a bell). Good luck, and I hope you feel better soon.
« Last Edit: March 17, 2005, 02:38:11 PM by Jon Boy »
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Offline Ryuko

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« Reply #6 on: March 17, 2005, 02:39:39 PM »
I totally didn't mean for you to help me. It's my homework and I dug my own self into this pit. Your help was more than appreciated. Thanks. :)
"Well, I'm certainly not going to get rich with customers like you. I thought I taught you to drink faster than that. Well, at least you're steady. Oh, come on now. Drink up. There's plenty more where that came from. "

The Tavern