Author Topic: Doctrine and Syntax (Read 1082 times)

pooka · « **on:** January 03, 2006, 10:31:18 PM »

A drop-dead wicked scripture analysis tool.

So what I'm wondering, looking at 1 Corinthians 10:13 [last clause], is whether Paul is promising that "ye (singular)" will be able to bear temptation or "ye (plural, specifically inclusive of God)" will be able to bear the temptation. It appears to me that he is actually saying the temptation will be borne. Other scriptures would lend themselves to an interpretation that we bear burdens by sharing the yoke of Christ and we are called on to bear one another's burdens.

I don't know of other scriptures that imply that our burdens are borne through self-adequacy, which I think this one only does through the necessity of a less painful translation.

Jonathon · « **Reply #1 on:** January 03, 2006, 11:25:49 PM »

I believe that the King James Version directly translates pronouns. If it's plural in the Greek, it's plural in English. So if it says "ye," then it's plural.

pooka · « **Reply #2 on:** January 04, 2006, 07:52:06 AM »

There aren't any pronouns in the Greek text, is the thing. I don't even see where they are inflected.

Jonathon · « **Reply #3 on:** January 04, 2006, 09:32:39 AM »

None whatsoever? Well, the verbs are still conjugated for number, which is essentially the same thing.