While reading, I keep running into situations where they present evidence, and then pull out of a hat a conclusion that, as far as I can tell, is not supported from the evidence they've presented. It makes it look like they've been looking for evidence to support their conclusion instead of forming conclusions based on the evidence, but I suppose that it might just be that each one of these essays is really short and there just isn't enough space to really develop their arguments. Also, it might be that if they really developed their arguments, it would be way over my head. Nevertheless, these essays do not inspire confidence in me for their arguments nor their methods.
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Minor nitpick. In the chapter about whether some languages are harder to learn than others, it says that since writing systems and spelling are considered "outisde" language, they won't be considered, since it's possible to switch from one writing system to a completely different one without changing the language. This is a convincing point, except for the fact that one of the earlier chapters in this same book about language was all
about spelling. It made me wonder if they didn't want to include that aspect of language in this chapter because it doesn't support their conclusion.
I'm not convinced that is the case, however, because the chapter does continue to show some ways in which certain languages are easier to learn than others. Maybe they didn't address writing systems because there wasn't enough space to do so, and just gave a lame excuse.
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I've probably been more annoyed by the chapter "Do Women Talk Too Much?" First of all, that hardly seems like a question that linguists are uniquely qualified to answer, but we'll let that slide.
First they produced evidence that it's actually
men who talk more in relatively formal settings such as board room meetings, classrooms, discussions created to talk about specific subjects, etc.. Then we get this quote:
So on this evidence we must conclude that the stereotype of the garrulous woman reflects sexist prejudice rather than objective reality.
Well, that very well may be the case, but there's no way you can conclude that from the evidence you've shown. The stereotype of the talkative woman (which really seems to be a thing from from generations past, in my experience) is mostly centered around familiar, informal settings such as within the family. So far you've
only discussed relatively formal settings where type-A personalities tend to dominate talking time. Let's not be so quick to play the sexism card, OK?
Only
after making that conclusion does it even bring up the idea of talking in less formal settings. No surprise here, but it turns out that women talk more in informal, relaxed settings.
The book makes sure to mention, though that "men still talked more in nearly a third of these informal studies". Why do they say that men talk more in nearly a third of these studies instead of saying that women talk more in
over two-thirds of these studies? I suspect it's because that would make it sound like they were supporting an obviously sexist and wrong myth.
Later, they made a truly fascinating point that people's
perception of how much women talk in semi-formal situations is drastically skewed -- women can be talking less them men as far as time lengths are concerned, but the perception will be that women are taking up more time than the men. Fascinating stuff -- tell me more!
Then they say:
In other words, if women talk at all, this may be perceived as 'too much' by men who expect them to provide a silent, decorative background in many social contexts.
o_O.
That didn't seem called for.