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English & Linguistics / Word Usage Pet peeve
« on: October 11, 2005, 09:40:37 PM »
Oh no! An extra syllable! It's the end of educated English as we know it!
*dies*
*dies*
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There were two people in my meeting this morning who kept saying processes as if it were a Latin plural (PRAH-sess-EEZ). I have no idea why they were doing it, but it bugged the heck out of me. Why are people so obsessed with Latin plurals, even when we have perfectly acceptable English ones?Because we're taught all our lives that Latin is the best language.
You know, the reason a Webster's dictionary is remarkable is because it is based on usage instead of classical etymology.And yet Merriam-Webster's doesn't have the "man-ayz" pronunciation. Someone's been slacking!
It's where you swallow the "t" in mountain and replace it with a glottal stop. It's actually pretty common throughout the country, and most people do it to some degree or another. Even those that mock ignorant Utahns for doing it more than they do.I thought we figured the difference was whether the glottal stop was followed by a syllabic n or followed by a vowel and then n.
Actually, as I already noted, my motivation is that it sounds like butt to me.I can accept that answer. I just think that the objection most people have is that it's rare in America. Well, it's probably only rare because it's edited out and sometimes stigmatized (with the rationale that it's a Briticism). Then people can say, "See? It's rare in America," even though it's artificially rare. It's just a vicious cycle.
In English the history of -wards as an advb. suffix is identical with that of -ward (see -WARD 3 and 4); beside every adv. in -ward there has always existed (at least potentially) a parallel formation in -wards, and vice versa. The two forms are so nearly synonymous (the general sense of the advs. being ‘in the direction indicated by the first element of the compound’) that the choice between them is mostly determined by some notion of euphony in the particular context; some persons, apparently, have a fixed preference for the one or the other form. Sometimes, however, the difference in the form of the suffix corresponds to a difference in the shade of meaning conveyed, though it would not be possible to give any general rule that would be universally accepted. Where the meaning to be expressed includes the notion of manner as well as direction of movement, -wards is required, as in ‘to walk backwards’, ‘to write backwards’. In other instances the distinction seems to be that -wards is used when the adv. is meant to express a definite direction in contrast with other directions: thus we say ‘it is moving forwards if it is moving at all’, but ‘to come forward’, not ‘forwards’ (see further the note on FORWARD adv.); so ‘to travel eastward’ expresses generally the notion of travelling in the direction of an eastern goal, ‘to travel eastwards’ implies that the direction is thought of as contrasted with other possible directions. Hence -wards seems to have an air of precision which has caused it to be avoided in poetical use.To me, it seems silly to call it incorrect. It has cognates in German, Dutch, and Gothic (though Gothic is dead). That means it goes back probably two thousand years or more. It seems to me that the only real motivation for calling it incorrect is so that we can legitimize our language by claiming that it's more correct than British English.