Emergency question!
If anyone can answer this by 11:00 my time (9:00pm in US Mountain time) it will be of fantastic help.
The students just took a test where the correct answer is an inverted form of the subjunctive (I don't even know if I'm identifying that correctly) and I need to explain why that answer was correct.
The sentence was "The business can help anyone - ________ the manager of a small company or a dentist working in a private practice." The choices include "he is," "if he," and something else, and the correct answer, "be he."
How on earth do I explain why we use that? I understand why we'd use the subjunctive there, but what's the rationale behind inversion like that? I've only really ever heard it used often in "be that as it may," as well as similar constructions as the question, "be he," "be it," etc.