In English, we only have subjunctive for past-tense (or something like tense), correct?
There are four forms that are commonly called the subjunctive in English.
1. the frozen subjunctive, which exists in set phrases like "God save the queen" and "be that as it may".
2. the uninflected form used in dependent clauses (called the "mandative subjunctive") often after verbs like ask, demand, recommend, suggest, insist, be advisable, be necessary.
I insist that you be quiet.
I demand that this cease.
3. the inverted had and were used in counterfactual clauses:
Had I known this yesterday, I would have done something.
Were I going to Paris, I would learn French.
4. the were form used with first and third person singular in counterfactual clauses:
If I were in Paris, I would learn French.
I wish she weren'’t going away.
The
were form is descended from the Old English past subjunctive, and that's presumably why we call it the past subjunctive, even tho it has nothing to do with past time.
There's nothing wrong with using
was instead of
were in counterfactual sentences like
Tracy wishes she was young enough to play ultimate frisbee or
If I was in Paris, I would learn French. Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage and The Oxford Companion to the English Language say this is a standard use. Both
was and
were have been used interchangeably in writing for 300 years. The only places where
were still survives robustly is
if I were you and
as it were.
