And just so you know, I'm not trying to pick on you or bait you or anything. I just honestly don't understand what's useful about such distinctions. I could understand if someone said they wanted to hang on to it for tradition's sake or some such, but that doesn't feel like a valid argument, I suppose. Really, I want to understand where prescriptivists are coming from. I want to know if there is really any evidence that this is a useful distinction.