GalacticCactus Forum

Forums => English & Linguistics => Topic started by: Noemon on December 01, 2006, 11:38:42 AM

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: Noemon on December 01, 2006, 11:38:42 AM

http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn1068...t-you-hear.html (http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn10689-what-you-speak-may-affect-what-you-hear.html)

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: rivka on December 01, 2006, 11:46:08 AM

I don't know about documented, but I certainly was aware that in Hebrew, where syllable accentuation is roughly the opposite from English, clocks tick backwards. ;)

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: Porter on December 01, 2006, 11:52:12 AM

I've never read about that in regards to the perception of music.  Thanks for the link.

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: Jonathon on December 01, 2006, 11:55:24 AM

I don't know how well-documented that phenomenon is, but I am a little surprised that they're treating it like a new breakthrough.  

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: pooka on December 01, 2006, 12:28:25 PM

It's probably related to moraic phonology, which explains things like like why spanish puts an "e" before "espana" and why CTVR can be a syllable in Czech.  I think.  My recollection of the second example is from a volleyball player in the 88 Olympics, so I'm not 100% positive.

What's odd is that the differences in Arabic dialects carry these subsyllabic features over from the native languages Arabic replaced.  Or something.  I mean, that's the Occam's Razor conclusion.  Until some religious nut says it's proof the the tower of Babel.

Title: Wait--isn't this already pretty well documented?
Post by: rivka on December 01, 2006, 03:31:17 PM

Ok.

It's proof of the tower of Bavel.

;)